Stat Final Pool

Multiple Choice

 

Which of the following is defined as the middle-most score:

a. mean

b. median

c. mode

d. standard deviation

e. frequency distribution

2. Which of the following is defined as the-most common (popular) score:

a. mean

b. median

c. mode

d. standard deviation

e. frequency distribution

3. When a curve is skewed, which of the following is the middle-most score:

a. mean

b. median

c. mode

d. standard deviation

e. frequency distribution

4. Which of the following is most affected by outlying scores:

a. mean

b. median

c. mode

d. B and C

e. A, B and C are equally affected

5. When a distribution is positively skewed, the mean is __________ the median:

a. lower than

b. equal to

c. higher than

d. twice as large as

e. twice as small as

For the next five items, consider the following numbers:

76

69

68

67

67

67

66

65

58

6. What is the median of these numbers:

a. 18

b. 33

c. 58

d. 67

e. 76

7. What is the mode of these numbers:

a. 18

b. 33

c. 58

d. 67

e. 76

8. What is the range of these numbers:

a. 18

b. 33

c. 58

d. 67

e. 76

9. This distribution is best described as:

a. normal

b. positively skewed

c. negatively skewed

d. bimodal

e. extensive

10. Without using a calculator, what is the mean of the above data (hint: see item #9):

a. 47.5

b. 64.3

c. 67

d. 68.4

e. 68.7

 

The more variability in a distribution, the larger its:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. standard deviation
e. all of the above

2. Sums of squares is a measure of:
a. dispersion
b. central tendency
c. covariance
d. interpolation
e. extrapolation

3. Which of the following is the average of the squared deviations:
a. mean
b. mean variance
c. sum of squares
d. standard deviation
e. variance

4. From one standard deviation above and below the mean accounts for what percent of the scores:
a. 17%
b. 25%
c. 34%
d. 68%
e. 95%

5. Which of the following is the square root of variance:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. mean variance
e. standard deviation

6. To calculate the variance of a population, Sums of Squares is divided by:
a. N
b. N-1
c. N-2
d. N-3
e. mean

7. Which of the following is the best measure of the fluctuation of a company’s stock price:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. mean variance
e. standard deviation

8. When looking for a homogeneous group of people, we should choose the one with:
a. the largest mean
b. the smallest mean
c. the largest standard deviation
d. the smallest standard deviation
e. the mode in the middle

9. A score of 50 on a test with a mean of 100 would be considered normal if the standard deviation was:
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
e. none of the above

10. A score of 50 on a test with a mean of 55 would be considered quite unusual if the standard deviation was:
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
e. none of the

Which of the following has multiple predictors and a single outcome measure (criterion)
a. multivariate analysis
b. independent t-test
c. multiple regression
d. regression
e. correlation

 

An ordinal scale meets which of the following assumptions:

1. ordering in magnitude
2. equal units
3. A and B
4. A and B plus other assumptions
5. none of the above

2. A ratio scale meets which of the following assumptions:
3. ordering in magnitude
4. equal units
5. A and B
6. A and B plus other assumptions
7. none of the above

3. A nominal scale meets which of the following assumptions:
4. ordering in magnitude
5. equal units
6. A and B
7. A and B plus other assumptions
8. none of the above

4. A test which only orders traits in magnitude is best described as:
5. cardinal
6. interval
7. nominal
8. ratio
9. ordinal

5. An item which asks people to rate something from 1 to 5 (5 being high) is on what level of measurement:
6. cardinal
7. interval
8. nominal
9. ratio
10. ordinal

6. The more samples taken, the more normal the curve looks, according to the:
7. critical-limit hypothesis
8. null-limit hypothesis
9. maximum-limit theorem
10. unbiased-limit theorem
11. central-limit theorem

7. A cumulative frequency divided by N (times 100) equals:
8. proportion
9. percent
10. percentile
11. preponderance
12. posthumous

8. Which of the following is an example of a grouped frequency distribution:
9. data matrix
10. correlation
11. regression
12. histogram
13. t-test

9. Which of the following is defined as a score divided by the total possible:
10. frequency distribution
11. percentile
12. sample
13. percent
14. proportion

10. The number of obstacles a horse jumps over would be a(n) ___________ measurement.
11. cardinal
12. interval
13. nominal
14. ratio

 

 

4

A z-score of +2 on a test with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 10 would equal a score of:

1. 80
2. 95
3. 100
4. 102
5. 120

2. Which of the following is calculated by subtracting the mean from the score and dividing by the standard deviation:
3. intelligence quotient
4. z-score
5. t score
6. stanine
7. percentile

3. What percentile is associated with a z-score (1-tailed) of 1.52:
4. .063
5. .437
6. .737
7. .747
8. .939

4. Using the tables at the back of the book, how much area is beyond a z-score of .61:
5. .027
6. .229
7. .271
8. .374
9. .427

5. What percentage of scores are between a z-score of -1.3 and a z of +1.65:
6. 52%
7. 64%
8. 68%
9. 72%
10. 86%

6. A z-score of -1 on a test with a mean of 90 and a standard deviation of 10 would equal a score of:
7. 80
8. 95
9. 100
10. 102
11. 120

7. What area under a normal curve is associated with a z-score (1-tailed) of .52:
8. .0636
9. .4375
10. .6985
11. .8475
12. .9375

8. Using the tables at the back of the book, how much area is beyond a z-score of -2.61:
9. .0045
10. .1745
11. .4570
12. .5045
13. .9045

9. What percentage of scores are between a z-score of -1.04 and a z of +.45:
10. 52%
11. 64%
12. 68%
13. 72%
14. 86%

10. A z-score of -1.5 on a test with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 10 would equal a score of:
11. 85
12. 95
13. 100
14. 105

 

5

Which of the following gives the correlation between two discrete variables:

1. phi
2. Pearson r
3. least squares criterion
4. point biserial
5. confidence level

2. Which of the following correlation coefficients shows the greatest amount of relationship:
3. .23
4. .45
5. .56
6. .71
7. -.89

3. A correlation between two variables:
4. proves A causes B
5. proves B causes A
6. proves C causes A
7. proves C causes B
8. none of the above

4. Which of the following best describes this correlation:

1. strong, positive
2. strong, negative
3. weak, positive
4. weak, negative
5. no correlation

5. The angle of a regression line is called:
6. intercept
7. intersect
8. slope
9. shift
10. the point where X and Y meet

6. Scores which are projected beyond their samples are said to be:
7. interpolated
8. extrapolated
9. innovated
10. interpreted
11. insubstantiated

7. Scores which predict between samples are said to be:
8. interpolated
9. extrapolated
10. innovated
11. interpreted
12. insubstantiated

8. Covariance divided by the product of the standard deviations of X and Y equals:
9. correlation
10. intercept
11. slope
12. criterion
13. linkage

9. The standard error of estimate is best understood as:
10. Sums of Squares
11. variance
12. standard deviation
13. mean
14. median

10. As a director of marketing, you are interested in how well your sales did over the year. In particular, you are curious whether last year’s revenue is a good predictor of this year’s. Since you are interested in how well one test acts as a linear predictor of another, which of the following tests should you perform:
11. t-test
12. ANOVA
13. correlation
14. regression
15. multiple regression

6

Which of the following do we select, manipulate, impose or induce:

1. independent variable
2. dependent variable
3. moderator variable
4. suppressor variable
5. intervening variable

2. Which of the following do we measure, observe or record:
3. independent variable
4. dependent variable
5. moderator variable
6. suppressor variable
7. intervening variable

3. In an actual research study, annual income could be:
4. a predictor
5. a criterion
6. type I error
7. either A or B

c A, B or C

4. A test which is given to widely varied groups will probably result in a distribution which is:
5. linear
6. normal
7. skewed
8. curvilinear
9. criterion-referenced

5. A factor whose levels are described as “high” and “low” is:
6. valid
7. reliable
8. discrete
9. logarithmic
10. continuous

6. The type of relationships between model components is determined by our:
7. theoretical questions
8. empirical analysis
9. sampling error
10. statistical bias
11. control groups

7. Which of the following is a graphic description of scores:
8. sample
9. percent
10. percentile
11. population analysis
12. frequency distribution

8. A selected part of a larger group is called a:
9. sample
10. percent
11. percentile
12. population analysis
13. frequency distribution

9. A test which describes a restricted range of people might well result in a distribution which is:
10. bimodal
11. positively skewed
12. negatively skewed
13. B and C
14. A, B and C

10. The following distribution is best described as:

1. normal
2. positively skewed
3. negatively skewed
4. bimodal
5. strange

7

Covariance divided by the variance of X equals:

1. correlation
2. intercept
3. slope
4. criterion
5. linkage

2. A null hypothesis says that two means are:
3. significantly different
4. slight different
5. not significantly different
6. maybe different
7. you have hit the null on the head

3. A t-test compares:
4. two medians
5. two modes
6. two means
7. two variables
8. two standard deviations

4. A t-test is calculated like which of the following:
5. point estimation
6. sum of squares
7. degrees of freedom
8. z-scores
9. confidence levels

5. Rejecting the null when you should have accepted it is a:
6. Type I error
7. Type II error
8. Type III error
9. Typo error
10. Not My Type error

6. Compared to an alpha level of .20, an alpha level of .05 is less likelyto have:
7. Type I error
8. Type II error
9. Type III error
10. Type O error
11. Not My Type error

7. When the null hypothesis is true, the expected value for an independent measures t statistic is:
8. 0
9. +1.0
10. -1.0
11. +1 or -1
12. none of the above

8. When t = 2.01 and N = 5000, it indicates that the means are significantly different (2 tailed) at the:
9. .20 alpha level
10. .05 alpha level
11. .01 alpha level
12. both A and B
13. A, B and C

9. When t = 4.3 and N = 50, it indicates that the means are significantly different (2 tailed) at the:
10. .20 alpha level
11. .05 alpha level
12. .01 alpha level
13. both A and B
14. A, B and C

10. An alpha level of .20 results in what z-score (1 tailed):
11. .69
12. .86
13. 1.33
14. 1.65
15. 1.96

8

 

If the probability of being hit by lightning is .3 (it’s a very stormy night), and the probability of eating chocolate ice cream is .5, what is the probability of eating ice cream AND being hit by lightning?

1. .3
2. .5
3. .8
4. .15
5. .25

2. In the simplest case, the probability of either A or B occurring is calculated by:
3. adding the probabilities
4. subtracting the probabilities
5. multiplying the probabilities
6. dividing the probabilities
7. both A and C

3. If the alpha level is set at .05, the probability of making a Type I error is:
4. .01
5. .02
6. .05
7. .10
8. .20

4. The probability of passing this test item is:
5. o
6. p
7. q
8. r
9. extremely unlikely

5. A nondirectional test of significance is said to be:
6. no-tailed
7. one-tailed
8. two-tailed
9. three-tailed
10. four-tailed

6. An independent measures experiment uses two samples with n = 8 in each group to compare two experimental treatments. The t statistic from this experiment will have degrees of freedom equal to:
7. 7
8. 8
9. 14
10. 15
11. 16

7. The advantage of a repeated measures design is that it reduces the contribution of error variability due to:
8. mean of D
9. degrees of freedom
10. the effect of the treatment
11. individual differences
12. none of the above

8. For a repeated measures experiment, df = 10. How many subjects were used in the entire study:
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 18
13. 22

9. Compared to a one-way test (at the same alpha level), a two-tailed test is less likely to have:
10. Type I error
11. Type II error
12. Type III error
13. Type O error
14. None of the above

10. How many dependent variables does a t-test have:
11. 1
12. 2
13. 3
14. N

9

consistent measurement is:

1. reliable
2. discrete
3. continuous
4. valid
5. logarithmic

2. An independent t-test assumes that:
3. subjects are randomly assigned
4. subjects are from different populations
5. two independent variables are equal
6. the null hypothesis is true
7. none of the above

3. A correlation assumes that:
4. subjects are randomly assigned
5. subjects are from different populations
6. two independent variables are equal
7. sample size is small
8. none of the above

4. An independent t-test has degrees of freedom equal to:
5. N
6. N minus 1
7. N minus 2
8. N minus k
9. N minus standard deviation

5. A correlated t-test has degrees of freedom equal to:
6. N
7. N minus 1
8. N minus 2
9. N minus k
10. N minus standard deviation

6. Which of the following uses pooled variance as an error term:
7. regression
8. one-way ANOVA
9. t-test
10. factorial ANOVA
11. all of the above

7. In a nondirectional hypothesis:
8. the larger mean should be subtracted from the smaller
9. the smaller mean should be subtracted from the larger
10. the mean used to estimate the population mean should be subtracted from the sample mean
11. the sample mean should be subtracted from the mean used to estimate the population mean
12. It doesn’t matter which mean is subtracted from which

8. In a null hypothesis assumes that the t-statistic is equal to:
9. +2
10. +1
11. 0
12. -1
13. -2

9. When more than two groups are to be compared, which of the following should be used:
10. regression
11. one-way ANOVA
12. t-test
13. naturalistic observation
14. all of the above

10. How many dependent variables are used in a t-test:
11. 4
12. 3
13. 2
14. 1

 

10

Which of the following has multiple predictors and a single outcome measure (criterion)
a. multivariate analysis
b. independent t-test
c. multiple regression
d. regression
e. correlation

2. Which of the following shows the interaction of 2 independent variables:
a. regression
b. one-way ANOVA
c. t-test
d. factorial ANOVA
e. all of the above

3. In a 2x3x4 factorial design, how many independent variables are there:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9
e. 24

4. How many dependent variables are in a 3×3 factorial ANOVA design:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
e. 9

5. In a factorial ANOVA, degrees of freedom for SSbetween equals:
a. N
b. N minus 1
c. k
d. k minus 1
e. N minus k

6. In a factorial ANOVA, degrees of freedom for SSwithin equals:
a. N
b. N minus 1
c. k
d. k minus 1
e. N minus k

7. In a factorial ANOVA, degrees of freedom for SStotal equals:
a. N
b. N minus 1
c. k
d. k minus 1
e. N minus k

8. Which of the following has multiple predictors and multiple criteria:
a. multivariate analysis
b. independent t-test
c. multiple regression
d. regression
e. correlation

9. Which of the following should be used to compare three or more groups:
a. t
b. F
c. r
d. r-squared
e. z

10. Which of the following is an estimate of error (individual differences):
a. SStotal
b. SSbetween
c. SSwithin
d. correlation
e. regression